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Exam Prep

Mycology practice questions.

Fungal lab methods, yeasts, superficial and cutaneous fungi, opportunistic molds and dimorphic fungi.

All subjects

Independent practice questions written by Labologics. Not affiliated with DHA, DOH (formerly HAAD), SCFHS, Prometric or any exam body. Not recalled exam questions.

Basics & methods

Q1 Basics & methods · Easy

Which statement about yeasts is correct?

  1. A: They are unicellular and reproduce mainly by budding
  2. B: They are bacteria
  3. C: They contain no cell wall
  4. D: They are multicellular and form hyphae
Show answer

Answer: A — They are unicellular and reproduce mainly by budding

Molds are multicellular and form hyphae. Dimorphic fungi grow as molds at 25 C and as yeasts at 37 C (in tissue).

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q2 Basics & methods · Easy

10% KOH is used on skin, hair and nail samples to:

  1. A: Stain fungi blue
  2. B: Dissolve keratin and cellular material so fungal elements are easier to see
  3. C: Kill bacteria
  4. D: Culture fungi
Show answer

Answer: B — Dissolve keratin and cellular material so fungal elements are easier to see

Calcofluor white can be added; it binds chitin and fluoresces under UV light, increasing sensitivity.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q3 Basics & methods · Easy

The standard medium for primary isolation of fungi is:

  1. A: Lowenstein-Jensen medium
  2. B: MacConkey agar
  3. C: Sabouraud dextrose agar
  4. D: Thayer-Martin agar
Show answer

Answer: C — Sabouraud dextrose agar

Its low pH and high sugar favor fungi. Chloramphenicol inhibits bacteria; cycloheximide inhibits saprophytic molds but also some pathogens such as Cryptococcus.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q4 Basics & methods · Medium

Which stains are commonly used to show fungi in tissue sections?

  1. A: Congo red and Perls
  2. B: Giemsa only
  3. C: Gram and Ziehl-Neelsen
  4. D: GMS (Grocott methenamine silver) and PAS
Show answer

Answer: D — GMS (Grocott methenamine silver) and PAS

GMS stains fungal walls black; PAS stains them magenta.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q5 Basics & methods · Medium

Dimorphic fungi grow as:

  1. A: Molds at 25 C and yeasts (or spherules) at 37 C / in tissue
  2. B: Only yeasts
  3. C: Only molds
  4. D: Yeasts at 25 C and molds at 37 C
Show answer

Answer: A — Molds at 25 C and yeasts (or spherules) at 37 C / in tissue

'Mold in the cold, yeast in the heat'. Examples: Histoplasma, Blastomyces, Coccidioides, Paracoccidioides, Talaromyces, Sporothrix.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q6 Basics & methods · Hard

Why must a suspected Coccidioides mold culture be handled only in a biological safety cabinet with the plate sealed?

  1. A: It is resistant to disinfectants
  2. B: Its arthroconidia are easily airborne and highly infectious
  3. C: It produces toxins on contact
  4. D: It grows only anaerobically
Show answer

Answer: B — Its arthroconidia are easily airborne and highly infectious

Coccidioides and Histoplasma molds are major laboratory infection risks.

Reference: Mahon & Lehman: Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology

Q7 Basics & methods · Easy

A suitable surface disinfectant for the mycology bench is:

  1. A: Saline
  2. B: Glycerol
  3. C: Plain water
  4. D: 70% ethanol or a fresh hypochlorite solution
Show answer

Answer: D — 70% ethanol or a fresh hypochlorite solution

Follow local biosafety policy; hypochlorite is better against heavy organic soiling.

Reference: Mahon & Lehman: Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology

Yeasts

Q8 Yeasts · Easy

Which test presumptively identifies Candida albicans in 2-3 hours?

  1. A: India ink
  2. B: Coagulase test
  3. C: Germ tube test in serum at 37 C
  4. D: Urease test
Show answer

Answer: C — Germ tube test in serum at 37 C

True germ tubes have no constriction at the point of origin. C. dubliniensis is also positive. Chlamydospores on cornmeal agar also support C. albicans.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q9 Yeasts · Easy

White, curd-like patches in the mouth of an infant or immunocompromised patient are typical of:

  1. A: Mucormycosis
  2. B: Histoplasmosis
  3. C: Aspergillosis
  4. D: Oral candidiasis (thrush)
Show answer

Answer: D — Oral candidiasis (thrush)

Candida appears as Gram-positive budding yeasts with pseudohyphae.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q10 Yeasts · Hard

Which Candida species is an emerging multidrug-resistant hospital pathogen that can be misidentified by older methods?

  1. A: Candida auris
  2. B: Candida parapsilosis
  3. C: Candida tropicalis
  4. D: Candida albicans
Show answer

Answer: A — Candida auris

It spreads in healthcare settings. Identify it by MALDI-TOF or molecular methods.

Reference: Mahon & Lehman: Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology

Q11 Yeasts · Medium

An HIV patient with headache has encapsulated yeasts in CSF. The most sensitive rapid test is:

  1. A: India ink stain
  2. B: Cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) test
  3. C: Germ tube test
  4. D: Gram stain
Show answer

Answer: B — Cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) test

India ink shows the capsule as a clear halo but is less sensitive. Cryptococcus is urease positive and forms brown colonies on birdseed (niger seed) agar.

Reference: Mahon & Lehman: Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology

Q12 Yeasts · Medium

The main virulence factor of Cryptococcus neoformans that is seen with India ink is its:

  1. A: Spores
  2. B: Pseudohyphae
  3. C: Polysaccharide capsule
  4. D: Germ tube
Show answer

Answer: C — Polysaccharide capsule

The capsule is antiphagocytic. Infection follows inhalation of yeasts from pigeon droppings.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q13 Yeasts · Medium

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is best diagnosed from:

  1. A: Stool culture
  2. B: Urine antigen
  3. C: Blood culture
  4. D: Bronchoalveolar lavage stained with GMS, Giemsa or immunofluorescence (or PCR)
Show answer

Answer: D — Bronchoalveolar lavage stained with GMS, Giemsa or immunofluorescence (or PCR)

Pneumocystis cannot be cultured; it occurs in people with HIV and CD4 below 200 cells/uL.

Reference: Mahon & Lehman: Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology

Q14 Yeasts · Easy

A yeast forming pink to coral colonies is most likely:

  1. A: Rhodotorula
  2. B: Cryptococcus
  3. C: Malassezia
  4. D: Candida albicans
Show answer

Answer: A — Rhodotorula

Rhodotorula is an occasional opportunist linked to catheters.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Superficial & cutaneous

Q15 Superficial & cutaneous · Easy

'Spaghetti and meatballs' (short hyphae and round yeasts) in skin scrapings indicate:

  1. A: Aspergillus
  2. B: Malassezia furfur (pityriasis versicolor)
  3. C: Candida
  4. D: Trichophyton
Show answer

Answer: B — Malassezia furfur (pityriasis versicolor)

Malassezia needs lipids; culture needs olive oil overlay or special media.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q16 Superficial & cutaneous · Medium

Painless brown-black patches on the palm caused by a pigmented yeast-like fungus are tinea nigra, caused by:

  1. A: Trichosporon
  2. B: Microsporum canis
  3. C: Hortaea werneckii
  4. D: Piedraia hortae
Show answer

Answer: C — Hortaea werneckii

Black piedra (hard black nodules on hair) is Piedraia hortae; white piedra (soft nodules) is Trichosporon.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q17 Superficial & cutaneous · Easy

Dermatophytes infect:

  1. A: Lungs only
  2. B: Bone marrow
  3. C: Blood and CSF
  4. D: Keratinized tissue: skin, hair and nails
Show answer

Answer: D — Keratinized tissue: skin, hair and nails

The genera are Trichophyton, Microsporum and Epidermophyton.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q18 Superficial & cutaneous · Easy

The most common cause of athlete's foot (tinea pedis) and nail infection is:

  1. A: Trichophyton rubrum
  2. B: Malassezia
  3. C: Candida krusei
  4. D: Aspergillus niger
Show answer

Answer: A — Trichophyton rubrum

T. rubrum often produces a red pigment on the reverse of the colony.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q19 Superficial & cutaneous · Medium

Infected hair that fluoresces yellow-green under a Wood's lamp suggests:

  1. A: Trichophyton tonsurans
  2. B: Microsporum canis
  3. C: Epidermophyton floccosum
  4. D: Candida albicans
Show answer

Answer: B — Microsporum canis

M. canis is zoophilic (cats, dogs) and produces spindle-shaped macroconidia.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q20 Superficial & cutaneous · Hard

Which dermatophyte produces club-shaped macroconidia, no microconidia, and does not infect hair?

  1. A: Trichophyton rubrum
  2. B: Trichophyton tonsurans
  3. C: Epidermophyton floccosum
  4. D: Microsporum canis
Show answer

Answer: C — Epidermophyton floccosum

It infects skin and nails only.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Opportunistic molds

Q21 Opportunistic molds · Easy

Narrow septate hyphae with acute-angle (about 45 degree) dichotomous branching in tissue suggest:

  1. A: Candida
  2. B: Histoplasma
  3. C: Mucor
  4. D: Aspergillus
Show answer

Answer: D — Aspergillus

Galactomannan antigen supports invasive aspergillosis in neutropenic patients. A. fumigatus is the most common species.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q22 Opportunistic molds · Medium

Invasive aspergillosis is most typical in:

  1. A: Patients with prolonged neutropenia, e.g., after chemotherapy or stem cell transplant
  2. B: Infants with thrush
  3. C: People with athlete's foot
  4. D: Healthy athletes
Show answer

Answer: A — Patients with prolonged neutropenia, e.g., after chemotherapy or stem cell transplant

Aspergillus can also form a fungus ball (aspergilloma) in old lung cavities.

Reference: Mahon & Lehman: Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology

Q23 Opportunistic molds · Easy

Broad, ribbon-like, pauci-septate (aseptate) hyphae with right-angle branching in necrotic tissue suggest:

  1. A: Aspergillus
  2. B: Mucormycosis (Rhizopus, Mucor)
  3. C: Candida
  4. D: Cryptococcus
Show answer

Answer: B — Mucormycosis (Rhizopus, Mucor)

Mucormycosis is linked to uncontrolled diabetes (especially ketoacidosis), steroids and iron overload; it caused many cases after COVID-19.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q24 Opportunistic molds · Medium

Which Mucorales genus has rhizoids located directly beneath the sporangiophore?

  1. A: Penicillium
  2. B: Mucor
  3. C: Rhizopus
  4. D: Aspergillus
Show answer

Answer: C — Rhizopus

Mucor has no rhizoids. Mucorales grow rapidly as fluffy 'lid-lifter' colonies.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q25 Opportunistic molds · Medium

Multicelled, banana (sickle)-shaped macroconidia identify:

  1. A: Aspergillus
  2. B: Penicillium
  3. C: Rhizopus
  4. D: Fusarium
Show answer

Answer: D — Fusarium

Fusarium can cause keratitis and disseminated infection in neutropenia; colonies are often pink to lavender.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q26 Opportunistic molds · Easy

Conidiophores with brush-like branches (penicillus) bearing chains of conidia identify:

  1. A: Penicillium
  2. B: Rhizopus
  3. C: Fusarium
  4. D: Histoplasma
Show answer

Answer: A — Penicillium

Penicillium is usually a contaminant. Talaromyces marneffei (formerly Penicillium marneffei) is dimorphic with a red diffusible pigment.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Dimorphic & subcutaneous

Q27 Dimorphic & subcutaneous · Medium

Small intracellular yeasts inside macrophages, from a patient exposed to bird or bat droppings, suggest:

  1. A: Candida
  2. B: Histoplasma capsulatum
  3. C: Blastomyces dermatitidis
  4. D: Cryptococcus
Show answer

Answer: B — Histoplasma capsulatum

In culture at 25 C it forms tuberculate macroconidia. Histoplasmosis is also called Darling's disease.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q28 Dimorphic & subcutaneous · Medium

Large thick-walled yeasts with single BROAD-BASED buds in tissue suggest:

  1. A: Histoplasma capsulatum
  2. B: Paracoccidioides
  3. C: Blastomyces dermatitidis
  4. D: Cryptococcus neoformans
Show answer

Answer: C — Blastomyces dermatitidis

Paracoccidioides shows multiple buds ('pilot's wheel'). Blastomycosis is also called Chicago disease.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q29 Dimorphic & subcutaneous · Medium

Spherules containing endospores in tissue are characteristic of:

  1. A: Histoplasma
  2. B: Aspergillus
  3. C: Sporothrix
  4. D: Coccidioides
Show answer

Answer: D — Coccidioides

In culture it forms barrel-shaped alternating arthroconidia, which are highly infectious.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q30 Dimorphic & subcutaneous · Medium

A gardener develops nodules spreading up the arm along lymphatics after a thorn prick. The likely cause is:

  1. A: Sporothrix schenckii
  2. B: Candida
  3. C: Malassezia
  4. D: Cryptococcus
Show answer

Answer: A — Sporothrix schenckii

Tissue shows cigar-shaped yeasts; this is 'rose gardener's disease'.

Reference: Larone's Medically Important Fungi: A Guide to Identification

Q31 Dimorphic & subcutaneous · Medium

Black grains discharged from a chronic foot swelling (Madura foot) suggest eumycetoma caused by:

  1. A: Candida
  2. B: Madurella mycetomatis
  3. C: Nocardia
  4. D: Actinomyces
Show answer

Answer: B — Madurella mycetomatis

Actinomycetoma (bacterial, e.g., Nocardia) usually gives pale or red grains; the distinction guides treatment.

Reference: Mahon & Lehman: Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology

Q32 Dimorphic & subcutaneous · Medium

Fungal meningitis typically shows which CSF pattern?

  1. A: Eosinophils only
  2. B: Neutrophils, normal glucose
  3. C: Lymphocytes, low glucose, high protein
  4. D: Normal cells and protein
Show answer

Answer: C — Lymphocytes, low glucose, high protein

This pattern resembles tuberculous meningitis; cryptococcal antigen testing and culture are needed.

Reference: Mahon & Lehman: Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology